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Is a $100m company with 100 shares more or less valuable than a $100m company with 1000 shares? That should answer your question.
Thats what I was thinkink to burglar. Atleast phycologicaly wise atleast 300$ for one share seems more intimidating than 20$. I guess the real question is how much of an impact does outstanding shares have on price.
It was just a thought, one that I hadnt thought of factoring in before.
Its times like this you wish you had a teacher. I guess ill have to brush that question off to the side. Maybe the answer will float to me when the times right loll.
The mathematics would say the companies are the same, value wise ... but not price wise!
But it is not about mathematics, is it?
I thought it was. If not, what is it about?
Is a $100m company with 100 shares more or less valuable than a $100m company with 1000 shares? That should answer your question.
D&M (deep and meaningful)
Let's call them KLM and NOP
KLM shares are valued at $1Mill each.
NOP shares are valued at $0.1Mill each.
But after a few days trading KLM shares can have risen or fallen by x%
NOP shares can have risen or fallen by y%
Short term, price is decided by auction.
Long term, price oscillates towards true value!
Well yes. But if they have moved by x% and y% they're no longer $100m companies.
I think you might be reading too much into my first answer, burgs.
I don't mean to be disagreeable.
Well in fact, I do.
Agree the Market Capitalisation has altered, BUT how prey tell, did the IV alter?
I didn't mention IV. I was only talking about market cap.
Thats what I was thinkink to burglar. Atleast phycologicaly wise atleast 300$ for one share seems more intimidating than 20$.
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