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I've just sold a portion of a few stocks that are around double what I entered so I can retain the initial capital outlay and ride the profits.
Since this is my first financial year of trading I have yet to deal with CGT.
My question is: Is the CGT applied on a per share basis or on a per trade basis?
For example(ignoring trade costs) here are two versions that I can see, which one is more correct?
1) per share:
buy 100 @ $1 = $100
sell 50 @ $2 = $100
CGT = $50
2) per trade:
buy 100 @ $1 = $100
sell 50 @ $2 = $100
CGT = $0
One other thing, how does the fact I have previously averaged down on a couple of shares affect things? Is my cost base simply the averaged price?
And which buy date is used for CGT timing? Is it the original buy date or the last averaged down date?
cheers
Also, I've been using an Excel based spreadsheet I made to track my trading and report a few bits of infomation, while this has been fine so far, is there anything around that would make tracking simpler and that can accommodate more complex trades(ie averaging down and partial sales)
What do you guys use?
cheers
How do they determine which buy date is used? or is that something you choose when calculating the total CGT to report?hi
CGT is calculated per share basis, for your second question, CGT is calculated as per the share price of that particular trade and not an average price on a FIFO basis (First In First Out)
i.e if you both ABX shares at $1.00 one year ago, and again ABX shares at $1.50 six months ago and now sell today at $2 you would chose the $1.00trade, you cannot average the trade and use that average figure for CGT purposes.
Even though there has only been a return of capital(ie no physical profit yet, the physical profit take would occur when the remaining shares are sold) you still have to pay CGT on the $50?1) per share:
buy 100 @ $1 = $100
sell 50 @ $2 = $100
CGT = $50
Thanks for the link, I'll give it a demo
I meant the recovering of capital outlaywhat do you mean by return of capital, your explanation indicates to me a CGT event has occured ,if you have not held the share for more than 12 months there is no CGT discount
Ok.for your first question, its on a FIFO basis,
First in First Out of when you bought your shares and when you sold them, thats how they work out your cost base for CGT purposes.
First in First Out of when you bought your shares and when you sold them, thats how they work out your cost base for CGT purposes.
I disagree about this. Unless there has been some change in the rules you can choose which Buy price you offset a Sale against.First in First Out of when you bought your shares and when you sold them, thats how they work out your cost base for CGT purposes.
That sucks...seems stupid to pay capital gains tax when u haven't made a
capital gain....will certainly make tax time interesting for me.
I disagree about this. Unless there has been some change in the rules you can choose which Buy price you offset a Sale against.
Say you did the following:
Buy 100 ABC @ $1.00 on 1 January 2008
Buy 100 ABC @ $1.50 on 1 July 2008
Sell 100 ABC @ $2 on 1 July 2009
You can choose whether to calculate the CGT against the 1 July 2008 purchase or the 1 January purchase. Obviously you will choose the July Buy as your c gain is only 50c per share.
But you have made a capital gain.
The capital gains/loses are worked out on each share purchased not each parcel.
Buy 1000 XYZ @ $1.00 on 1 January 2009
Sell 500 XYZ @ $2.00 on 1 June 2009
Capital gain = $0
Buy 1000 XYZ @ $1.00 on 1 January 2009
Sell 500 XYZ @ $2.00 on 1 June 2009
Capital = money, so no capital gain - that's what i find stupid...don't make sense to me.
i understand what your trying to say. Because you havent locked in the gain, it is possible that :
-$1000 BUY 1000 xyz@ $1.00
+$1000 SELL 0500 xyz@ $2
_______
$0.00
But you still own 500 xyz shares. If those shares then became worthless, you have gained nothing. Consisting of a $500 capital gain, followed by a $500 capital loss.
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