Asking on behalf of a friend who has T1 and T2. If she sells some TLS 1 or 2 to buy some T3, which shares are considered to have been sold first for CGT ? or, are they averaged out ? Obviously T1 is a profit and T3 a loss.
I've seen the answer written a million times, but can't find it. Thanks.
I've seen the answer written a million times, but can't find it. Thanks.