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I took a screen dump on the morning after the Dow dropped 286 points.
What I couldn't understand is if there are enough buyers to fill the sellers at 7.80 then why not sell at 7.80 instead of 7.50?
The opening price was 7.50.
What happens in a reverse situation - ie; buyers were as high as 7.80 pre-open but the opening price was 7.50. Would thos buyers at 7.80 actually pay 7.80 or as they are at the front of the cue would they only pay 7.50?
This has been on my mind for a while now.
Any help, as always, appreciated.
A tick to you, would pay 7.50. Start and the end of the day can be very dangerouse for the newby or unwary. On selling I have often seen sell orders premarket in what appears to be big support only to see the large buy order dissappear 30 seconds prior to trade. There are unscrupulous but cunning traders taking money off the lambs this way all the time.
I never trade till at least 10.30 and keep away from all stocks that have low inconsistent volume. When there has been a big fall overnight it is hard not to want to liquidate at market opening. Watch for it in future and you will note time again that there will be a bigdrop in the first 30 minutes (becomes oversold from the panic merchants) then it will rise and on this rise it will often go back to near the day before close by 11 to 11.30 which is the time to get out if need be. The strength of a stock between 2.15pm and towards 3 is usually about thrue value. The pros get togther over lunch and then make the big institutional buys.
Just my 2 cents.
Here's a spreadsheet I made up to calculate the opening price using the ASX principles from HERE. Refer to the Notes sheet.
There maybe errors - no guarantee it's correct
Cut and paste the prices from your broker onto the Data sheet and see the estimated price shown.
Cheers Shutty
G"day all. I'm a noob so excuse the question
I've noticed when watching market depths before the market opens, that the bid prices are insanely higher than the offer prices.
What is the reason behind this?
Cheers
So do the people that put in crazy bids 20-30 percent above the indicitive open price actually pay that much more or are they at the front of the cue when it opens and therefore only pay the actual opening price?
Thanks for all responses.
but what actually happens in the above example?
thanks,
To specifically answer you, yes the crazy bid will be the first filled and gain the shares at the indicative open price. I have done it where I was aware that the price for a number of reasons would rise and so succeeded. I have lost doing it too.
I am bumping this thread as I noticed a question on the QBE thread that refers to it and have also included a link to this over there.
This must be one of the most commonly asked questions on this forum!
My added question is: Can traders put prices in both sides ie a high Bid for a few shares when actually they have a larger bid to dump shares and want to manipulate the price as high as they can?
The open is a price balanced out on volume. You can't "manipulate " with a few shares.
With about 20 mins to go before the market opens the indicative prices seem consistently very low across a range of major stocks -- from financial to resources.
Any thoughts on this? The DOW was flat...
Have I missed some news over here in the Wild West?
Thanks
Rick
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