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That to me reads a lot like a wash sale which the ATO now frowns upon.I use a CommSec Cash Account (CCA) for settling my share sales and purchases. I plan to open a line of credit (LOC) with a lender that allows me to borrow up to $100K say. When a bill comes through from the builder, I plan to sell some shareholding I have (preferably one that is in the red to avoid CGT) that realises approximately the amount owed to the builder. More or less at the same time I buy back the same shareholding to maintain my same position in that company. I then transfer from my LOC an amount exactly equal to the purchase cost to the CCA.
I have a situation where I am about to do some renovations to my home (PPOR) that will require about $100K to fund. Even though I have a large share portfolio that if partly liquidated could fund the $100K, I want to keep the shareholding intact and borrow the money required for the renovations. However, if the purpose of the loan is not for investment, the loan interest would not be tax deductible.
Apologies in advance for sounding a bit too righteous, but sounds to me as though you want your cake and eat it too. If you can partly liquidate then do so? Why try and do dodgy tax maths just to save a few dollars and get yourself in potential trouble?
Just sounds to me you're asking advice on how to cheat the tax system.
The intention is not to cheat the system, but to reduce tax. In principle it is all above board, as for example....
I take out a loan of $100K and buy $100K of shares, that match part of my existing holding. There can be no issue with that, as it is just gearing to buy shares and the interest is tax deductible.
I then sell some of my existing shares that match roughly what I bought. Again, that is completely legit. I now have approximately $100K in cash and a loan of $100K whose interest is tax deductible.
When I receive the builder's bills, I pay them from the cash.
What I am trying to do is in principle exactly the same as these three steps, except I want to do it piecemeal as the builder's bills come in. What I am trying to ascertain is whether anyone has done something similar to what I am proposing, but ran foul of the ATO because of possible ambiguity in the source of the funds to purchase the shares because of everything going through the CCA account.
Because the interest I pay on the LOC is higher than interest I receive from having cash sitting in a savings account, it is obviously better to do it piecemeal as funds are needed to pay the bills than to do it upfront.
Regarding DRSMITH's suggestion that it may be seen as a wash transaction by the ATO, I thought wash transactions only applied to sales made just before the end of tax year and immediately purchased in the next tax year, but I may be wrong.
My intention of selling stocks that may be in the red is not so much to avoid CGT, but large CGT gains realised might negate any advantage of the savings I might make.
bellenuit - I actually think the idea is good and there is nothing wrong in principle from my point of view. I would have done the same in your shoes. Of course I am not the ATO so who knows how they will view it.
There might be a few things you may consider to make it clearer on what you are doing.
E.g.
- Sell the shares earlier before the builder's bill
- Buy back shares that are different to what you've sold (if possible). E.g. if you have some CBA, buying back ANZ might not make a huge difference to your portfolio's risk and performance, but negate the chance of being accused of a wash sale.
- Pay the builder from a different account.
It would be foolish to not reduce your tax bill when you have equity invested in shares and a non tax-deductible loan.
Had you considered taking out a margin loan instead of a LOC? That way share sale proceeds could be directed to the CCA (and then used to pay for renovations) but share purchases would be made via the margin loan - keeping the transactions more separate while still allowing the interest paid on the margin loan to be tax-deductable. Int rate would be a little higher I suppose, but it may be worth paying slightly more for the sake of clarity.
I refer to the following section in the linked ATO information above.Regarding DRSMITH's suggestion that it may be seen as a wash transaction by the ATO, I thought wash transactions only applied to sales made just before the end of tax year and immediately purchased in the next tax year, but I may be wrong.
In bold is how I suspect the ATO would see it.3. Reinstatement of the taxpayer's interest is commonly achieved by a taxpayer selling a CGT asset and creating a trust over the asset or transferring an asset to a trust. We are concerned where this is done with the sole or dominant purpose of generating a capital or revenue loss to offset against a capital gain or assessable income when in substance there is an intention to acquire the same or substantially the same asset or the taxpayer still benefits from the asset.
That's unlikely to cut it with the ATO if that working capital is then directed towards private expenditure or anything that does not have the prospect of earning an income for that matter.Having a reason for using a line of credit that isn't just to lower your tax bill is probably useful too. Maybe write something about freeing up working capital by gearing your portfolio.
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