I'm going to assume that the venture is funded by equity.
To my thinking, what becomes critical here is the discount rate of the market, r. Because you have not specified any reinvestment of your earnings per year ( ie, no growth), PLUS you own 100% of the company (so for the sake of the exercise you get the 100% of the free cash flow), you ultimately determine whether your internal rate of return beats the market's discount rate. If not you don;t reinvest your cash flow. If projects beat the market discount rate, you DO reinvest a portion of your free cash flow.
Example:
You have capital - capex, working capital, accounts receivables, accounts payable
Your Invested Capital per Share ( ICPS) = Capital/share
Your ROI > 0
EPS is your free cash flow per share = ICPS*ROI
Cash Flow per Share has two branches :
i. Dividend/EPS ( 1-b) AND
ii Retained Earnings/EPS (b)
So, say your company earns 10% on existing assets (ROI)
ICPS = $2 capital per share
Market Cap rate is 12% (r)
No growth plan (g=0)
EPS= 2*0.1 = $0.20
You own 100% of the equity which is 2 millions units.
You pay yourself a perpetuity of 100% of free cash flow since there is no reinvestment to replenish your capital.
So essentially you are setting aside 2Mx0.2 = $400,000
If this was more than an academic conundrum, you would need help, because -
you would need to determine the true market risk premium, like minded companies equity betas, the different probabilitoes of your company returning positive cashflows, debt/equity ratios.
Once you have that, you can look at your cost of capital and see whether it beats what the rest of the market is doing. AND also compare your investment to other ventures - looking at NPV etc