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Companies can destroy wealth,
If a company builds a $1billion oil rig, and it blows up and sinks to the ocean floor, that $1billion asset is gone, the loss might be spread around by insurance, but still our economy has lost a $1billion asset
I agree. Wealth is not like entropy. it is continually created and destroyed.
In a stockmarket crash, not every share is shorted so wealth is destroyed.
If a person buys a share at $1 and sells at 10c, then he is undergoing wealth destruction. True the person who sold the share at $1 still retains the $1 and the person who buys the share at 10c still has the share but the person in he middle of the transaction has lost 90% of his wealth due to that company.
Growth has made us all wealthier, we are far wealthier due to advances in technology, efficiency of services, supply chains and manufacturing. If oil say went to $100 a litre we would all be poorer in today's world as food etc. would be more expensive.
We're talking about the stock market. Obviously in the real world wealth can be destroyed.
In your example of a crash assuming the company initially started trading at $1, $1 of cash is gained by the company. Price goes to 10c, stockholder(the shares traded on the market) lost 90c. So what happens here ?
Company gains 90c of wealth. (+$1 cash minus 10c of liability (current share price) = +90c.
Stockholder loses 90c of wealth. (-$1 cash minus 10c of asset (the shares)) = -90c.
You might say in a stock market crash the company loses wealth too as well as investors. Has it really ?
Before a crash the company:
-holds $2 of cash
-holds $4 in real assets
-owes $1 to shareholders
total $5
After the crash the company:
-holds $2 of cash
-holds $4 in real assets
-owes $0.10 to shareholders
total $5.90
Where did the extra 90c come from ? Sentiment only affects stock market prices NOT real assets. Your tractor can can carry 100kgs of coal today. It will also carry 100kgs of coal tomorrow after a stock market crash.
Wealth is simply transferred WITHIN the stock market. Zero sum. 1 + 1 has to = 2.
.
In your example of a crash assuming the company initially started trading at $1, $1 of cash is gained by the company. Price goes to 10c, stockholder(the shares traded on the market) lost 90c. So what happens here ?
Company gains 90c of wealth. (+$1 cash minus 10c of liability (current share price) = +90c.
Stockholder loses 90c of wealth. (-$1 cash minus 10c of asset (the shares)) = -90c.
You might say in a stock market crash the company loses wealth too as well as investors. Has it really ?
Before a crash the company:
-holds $2 of cash
-holds $4 in real assets
-owes $1 to shareholders
total $5
After the crash the company:
-holds $2 of cash
-holds $4 in real assets
-owes $0.10 to shareholders
total $5.90
Where did the extra 90c come from ? Sentiment only affects stock market prices NOT real assets. Your tractor can can carry 100kgs of coal today. It will also carry 100kgs of coal tomorrow after a stock market crash.
Wealth is simply transferred WITHIN the stock market. Zero sum. 1 + 1 has to = 2.
.
For example if the stock market crashes, and billions or trillions vanish does wealth simply vanish or is just transferred from one hand to another. For example wealth is created in a bull market for person A and wealth is lost in a bear market for person B so its essentially equal? Is that correct or incorrect.
The stock market is just a list of real world companies. Any wealth destroyed In the "real world" is going to affect the stock market.
Eg. If that Oil rig I described is owned by BHP or Insured By QBE it will affect those shares.
I disagree. The purpose of a company is to make profits, not collect assets. There are plenty of companies with little in the ways of assets that are worth heaps.
Let's take a real world example, Fortescue.
If the iron ore price drops to $50, suddenly Fortescue is not profitable. It's assets are worth less. The share price drops. The company may even go broke.
Then you have high asset companies like Qantas. Sure they own planes and airport terminal rights but if they go broke, selling the planes is not going to cover the losses.
Flight Centre, a highly successful company that's only decent asset is its recognised name. If there is a change in consumer behaviour and their profit drops by half, then the share price will similarly fall.
Summarising
Before a crash the company:
-holds $2 of debt (most companies are leveraged)
-holds $5 in real assets
-owes $0 to shareholders (not true, the company doesn't owe anything to the shareholders, you are buying a share of a company.)
total $3
After the crash the company:
-holds $2 of debt
-holds $3 in real assets (assets devalue due to lower profits/crashing values)
total $1 the company is in danger of going broke if they start making losses.
That depends on how you apply this understanding. Manage the risk.The real question is does understanding this concept make me a better trader haha
You automatically link stock market crash = real assets devalued/profits drop. Not true. As above, you are missing that investor sentiment decides share prices. A company can be making big profits in the real world and have its share price drop.
True, sentiment is one of the factors that decides share prices. What I don't like about this argument is that if the price falls then it must be a bargain. It equally could be that the fundamentals have changed within the business and only the insiders know or the macroeconomics have changed and everyone hasn't realised it yet.
Fundamentals decide share prices and though the price is connected by the elastic band that is sentiment, fundamentals ultimately set the anchor.
Haha value collector. Im just going to assume that wealth is transferred in the stock markets but can be destroyed in real life scenarios? The real question is does understanding this concept make me a better trader haha
For example if the stock market crashes, and billions or trillions vanish does wealth simply vanish or is just transferred from one hand to another. For example wealth is created in a bull market for person A and wealth is lost in a bear market for person B so its essentially equal? Is that correct or incorrect.
For example:
Person A buys Company A for $100. Holds for 1 year, receives $20 in dividends, sells for $80 to Person B.
Each paid $1 in trading costs
Net change in wealth for Person A = $20 (dividend received) - $1 cost = $19
Net change in wealth for Person B = $0 ($80 in cash to $80 in shares) - $1 cost = -$1
Change in total wealth = $18
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