Could someone please clarify the following for me:
Imagine I have zero (0) in my cash account and make a sale today (order is executed immediately). I understand there's 3 days before settlement, hence 3 days until this money becomes available.
Is it possible for me to place a buy transaction on the same day, on the assumption that when this transaction is to settle, the funds will be available?
Does this make sense?
I guess I'm questioning the timing of the cash moving in/out of the account and how this becomes available for trading.
Hope that doesn't sound dumb.