Can anyone tell me (for tax purposes)
On what date the dividend is said to be paid to the taxpayer. Is it (a) the date the share goes ex-div or (b) the date the dividend is actually received by the taxpayer.
Ref. the 45 day rule ..........
If a share is sold before the 45 days is up then the Franking credit is lost where the taxpayer already has accrued $5000 of FC's. However what is the situation where the 45 days straddles the end of a financial year ?