Sorry, hope this makes sense:
- I invest $10k in XYZ and it doubles to $20k in 6 months.
If I sell of half ($10k) of my holding in XYZ immediately am I correct to assume that:
- I pay no tax on my initial capital of $10k which is sold off 6 months before CGT discount date.
- If I wait for 12 months from XYZ purchase date to sell the rest of "free-carried" holding, I will get CGT discount on the profitable part of my trade?