I have searched around the place, including here the ATO and everyones friend google and cannot find a definitive/clear answer to this anywhere.
I am trying to workout/understand the effect of calculating the cost base when selling shares that either isn't a complete parcel or is a qty of shares which spans two parcels of purchased shares.
The calculation is easy if you are just buying say 1000 shares and then selling the 1000 again but if you don't sell all 1000 the information on how to apply the purchasing costs to the cost base is a bit sparse.
Consider the following scenario of selling shares spanning two different parcels
1000 XYZ Shares @ $2.50 ($25 Brokerage)
1500 XYZ Shares @ $3.50 ($35 Brokerage)
1750 XYZ Shares @ $4.25 ($35 Brokerage)
My question is how does the brokerage get applied to the cost base?
Obviously there is $25 for the first 1000 shares, leaving 750 shares left in the CGT event. There was $35 brokerage on the second 1500 share parcel.
Does this mean that you would include $60 in the cost base calculation?
Do you apportion the brokerage to each share (ie: individual asset) that being for the first 1000 it would be $25/1000 shares = 2.5c per share & for the remaining 750 it would be $35/1500 = 2.33c per share.
Which therefore would see you arrive at the following purchasing cost.
1000 x 2.5 = 2500c ($25)
750 x 2.33 = 1747.5c ($17.48 rounded to 2 decimals)
If the brokerage doesn't get apportioned as above then are there rules regarding claiming the brokerage once or can the $35 be claimed again when selling the remaining 750 shares?
Any clarification would be great.