Hello all, this is a long story but I will try and keep it short and to the point.
I am having issues with a bank that I bank with which involves them stating that I set up a trust account with my father as the trustee and myself as the benificiary.
At no point did I do this.
Naturally with the extremely poor response I have been getting form said bank the simple solution is to close all accounts with the bank and go elsewhere, which I plan to do and my father has already done, however they structure of the account and the way they have been reported is such that it will cause a reasonable out of pocket expense to my father due to the tax implications and as such I need the issue resolved.
My uunderstanding and hence question is that in order for me to have (suposably) set up a trust account with my father as a trustee wouldn't he have had to sign something?
The bank in question has no intention of rectifying the mistake and have concluded that I am at fault for the way the account was set up etc. I beleive I have more than enough evidence to show the contrary and plan to take the matter to the ombudsman howeveR I would still like to have some clarification as to if they have acted illegally.