Looking at FMG today, there is a trade of 1,145,500 shares @ $5.44 - The indicative price as of now is $4.89. From what I understand, this is an Overseas crossed trade - so the buyer and seller are from the same broker? If this is the case, why would you want to pay $5.44 per share when it's quite clear that the share is going to open @ well under $5? Please correct me if my understanding is incorrect as I am trying to understand why this takes place.