From a book, I read the following strategy: sell a strike one SD above the current price. Standard deviation was calculated using the implied volatility of the ATM option.
However, I don't understand what SD (standard deviation?) means.
I have a question: If the implied volatility of the at-the-money call is 25% with 17 days left before expiration and the current price of the undelying instrument is 133, what strike should I sell?